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HPSC HCS Question Paper 2026 Answers of GS, Explanation & Prelims Analysis

Check HPSC HCS Question Paper 2026 Answers of GS (General Studies), Explanation & Prelims Analysis: Haryana Public Service Commission (HPSC) successfully conducted the Haryana Civil Services (HCS) & Other Allied Services Preliminary Examination 2026 on April 26, 2026. Candidates who appeared for the exam are now searching for the official HPSC HCS Exam Question Paper 2026 solution explaned and analysis to assess their performance.

HPSC HCS 2026 Exam Overview

The preliminary examination was held in two shifts to accommodate both the General Studies (GS) and CSAT papers. Below is the summary of the examination structure:

Parameter Details
Exam Name HCS (Ex. Br.) & Other Allied Services 2026
Exam Date April 26, 2026
Paper I General Studies (10:00 AM - 12:00 PM)
Paper II CSAT (03:00 PM - 05:00 PM)
Exam Mode Offline (OMR Based)

HPSC HCS 2026 Question's Solution Q1-10 of GS with Explanations 

Here are the first 10 questions from General Studies (GS) paper with their answers and explanations.

1. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Sri Bhramaramda Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple : Andhra Pradesh
  2. Shri Kamakshi Devi Temple : Goa
  3. Sun Temple : Odisha How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • Answer: (C) All three pairs
  • Explanation: The Sri Bhramaramda Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple is located in Srisailam, Andhra Pradesh; the Shri Kamakshi Devi Temple is a famous temple in Shiroda, Goa; and the Sun Temple (Konark) is located in Odisha. All matches are correct.

2. Consider the following table:

  1. Mohiniyattam : Chera patronage
  2. Thullal : Introduced by Nambiar (1738)
  3. Kutiyattam : Chakkiar Community How many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

  • Answer: (C) All three
  • Explanation: Mohiniyattam is historically linked to Chera patronage (9th-12th century CE). Thullal was introduced by Kunchan Nambiar in 1738. Kutiyattam is traditionally performed by the Chakkiar community.
3. Consider the following table:
  1. Madai : Chhattisgarh
  2. Doongri : Himachal Pradesh
  3. Gugga Naumi : Haryana In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
  • Answer: (C) All three
  • Explanation: Madai is a festival in Chhattisgarh celebrated in December. Doongri (Hadimba Devi) festival occurs in Himachal Pradesh in May. Gugga Naumi is a significant religious festival celebrated in Haryana in August/September.

4. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Extended Fund Facility (EFF) : For structural balance of payments problems
  2. Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) : Quick and concessional lending for high-income countries
  3. Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) : Short-term liquidity line How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • Answer: (A) Only one
  • Explanation: The EFF is correctly matched with structural balance of payments problems. However, the RCF is for low-income countries, not high-income countries, and the RSF is not a short-term liquidity line, making only the first pair correct.
5. Consider the following table:
  1. Human Development Index : Mahbub Ul Haq
  2. Physical Quality of Life Index : Morris David Morris
  3. Multi Dimensional Poverty Index : Suresh Tendulkar In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: HDI was pioneered by Mahbub Ul Haq. PQLI was developed by Morris David Morris. The MPI is typically associated with the UNDP/OPHI, not Suresh Tendulkar (who is associated with poverty line estimation in India), meaning only the first two rows are matched correctly.

6. Consider the following table:
  1. Lapies : Depositional : Groundwater
  2. Seif : Depositional : Wind
  3. Horn : Erosional : Glacier In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Lapies are erosional landforms created by groundwater, not depositional. Seif dunes are depositional landforms created by wind. Horns are erosional landforms created by glacial action. Thus, rows 2 and 3 are correct.
7. Consider the following statements:
  1. When rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as 'trellis' pattern.
  2. The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as the 'centripetal' drainage pattern.
  3. When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is known as the 'dendritic pattern'. How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • Answer: (D) None
  • Explanation: None are correct due to mismatched definitions. When rivers flow in all directions from a hill, it is a Radial pattern. When it resembles tree branches, it is a Dendritic pattern. When rivers discharge into a lake from all directions, it is a Centripetal pattern.

8. Consider the following statements:
  1. Nilgiri Biosphere reserve has the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque.
  2. Sea cow, an endangered species, are found in the Gulf of Mannar.
  3. About 80% of the flowering plants reported from the Western Ghats occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere reserve. How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • Answer: (C) All three
  • Explanation: All three statements are factually correct regarding the biodiversity and geographical significance of these specific Indian biosphere reserves.
9. Consider the following statements:
  1. Mizoram, also known as the 'Molassis basin', is made of soft unconsolidated deposits.
  2. 'Bugyals' are summer grasslands in the higher reaches of the Great Himalayan ranges.
  3. Loktak lake is located in Mizoram. How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. However, Loktak Lake is located in the state of Manipur, not Mizoram, making statement 3 incorrect.

10. Assertion A: The south-western districts of Haryana receive significantly less monsoon rainfall compared to the north-eastern districts.

Reason R: The Aravalli range in the south-west acts as a massive orographic barrier, blocking the moisture-laden winds of the Bay of Bengal branch.

  • Answer: (C) A is true but R is false
  • Explanation: While Assertion A is factually true, Reason R is false. The Aravallis run parallel to the Arabian Sea monsoon winds and do not effectively block the Bay of Bengal winds, which provide moisture to the region via different atmospheric mechanisms.

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 Solution of Q 11-20

Here are questions 11 through 20 from GS paper, along with their answers and explanations.

11. With reference to the Haryana Panchayati Raj Act, 1994 and its subsequent amendments, how many of the following criteria are mandatory for a candidate contesting for the post of a Sarpanch?
  1. ​The candidate must possess a functional toilet in their residential premises.
  2. ​A male candidate from the General Category must have passed the Matriculation (10^{th}) examination.
  3. ​The candidate must not have any arrears owed to any Primary Agricultural Cooperative Society (PACS).
  4. ​The candidate must be a minimum of 25 years of age.
  • Answer: (C) Only three
  • Explanation: Criteria 1, 2, and 3 are mandatory requirements under the act. Criterion 4 is incorrect because the minimum age for a Sarpanch in Haryana is 21 years, not 25.

12. Consider the following statements regarding the imposition of President's Rule (Article 356) in Haryana:
  1. ​President's Rule has been imposed in Haryana exactly three times since its formation.
  2. ​The first instance of President's Rule in Haryana occurred in 1967 following the fall of the Rao Birender Singh-led Samyukta Vidhayak Dal government.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
  • Explanation: President's Rule was imposed in Haryana in 1967, 1977, and 1991 (three times). The first instance was indeed in 1967 after the fall of the Rao Birender Singh government.
13. Assertion A: The Jo Co Shah Commission, established in 1966, unanimously recommended the inclusion of Chandigarh and Kharar tehsil into the newly formed state of Haryana. Reason R: The 1961 linguistic census indicated a decisive Hindi-speaking majority in both Chandigarh and the Kharar tehsil.
  • Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • Explanation: The Shah Commission's recommendations were based on the census data of 1961, which highlighted the linguistic composition of these areas.

14. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Pathmar: Horse Postal System
  2. ​Uluq: Foot Postal System
  3. ​Dawa: Messengers
  • Answer: (D) None of the pairs
  • Explanation: Historically, Ibn Battuta described Uluq as the horse-post and Dawa as the foot-post. The provided pairings in the question are mismatched with standard historical terminology.

15. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Bernier: Describes the efficiency of the postal system.
  2. ​Ibn Battuta: Always compares India with the superiority of Europe.
  3. ​Abul Fazal: Considers land revenue as a "remuneration of kingship."
  • Answer: (C) All the three pairs
  • Explanation: These are accurate descriptions of the observations made by these travelers and historians regarding India's administration and economy during the Mughal and Delhi Sultanate periods.

16. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Siyar-ul-Auliya: Tazkiras, meaning recollection of the biographies of Sufi saints.
  2. ​Maktubat-e-Imam Rabbani: Maktubat, meaning collection of written letters.
  3. ​Fawaid-al-Fu'ad: Mulfuzat, meaning conversations of Sufi saints.

  • Answer: (C) All the three pairs
  • Explanation: These correctly define the genres of Sufi literature mentioned in the pairs.
17. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Nicolo de' Conti: Italian
  2. ​Duarte Barbosa: Portuguese
  3. ​Afanasy Nikitin: Italian
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Nicolo de' Conti was Italian and Duarte Barbosa was Portuguese. However, Afanasy Nikitin was Russian, not Italian.

18. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Hiriya: Canal
  2. ​Kamalapuram: Platform
  3. ​Amara Nayak: Military Commander
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Hiriya is a known canal and Amara Nayaks were military commanders in the Vijayanagar Empire. Kamalapuram is typically associated with a water tank (reservoir) rather than a platform.

19. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Nalayiradivya-prabandham: Compilation of Shaiva hymns in Tamil language
  2. ​Andal: Vishnu's beloved
  3. ​Tavaram: The poems of Appar, Sambandar and Sundarar
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Nalayiradivya-prabandham is a collection of Vaishnava (not Shaiva) hymns. Andal is famously devoted to Vishnu, and the Tavaram refers to the works of the three major Shaiva saints mentioned.

20. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Horizontal velocity-time graph: Zero acceleration
  2. ​A linear velocity-time graph with non-zero slope: Uniform motion
  3. ​Curved distance-time graph: Non-uniform motion
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation:
    • ​A horizontal velocity-time graph indicates the velocity is constant, meaning acceleration is zero (Correct).
    • ​A linear velocity-time graph with a non-zero slope represents constant acceleration, not uniform motion (Incorrect).
    • ​A curved distance-time graph indicates changing speed, which is non-uniform motion (Correct).

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 GS Solution of Q 21-30

Here are questions 21 through 30 from GS paper, along with their answers and explanations.

21. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If a copper and a nichrome wire of same length and same area of cross section carry the same current for same time at room temperature then both will produce the same amount of heat.

Statement II: If current in a conductor is doubled and time is halved then the heat produced becomes double.

  • Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  • Explanation: According to Joule's Law of Heating (H = I^2Rt), heat depends on resistance (R). Since copper and nichrome have different resistivities (\rho), their resistance will differ even with the same dimensions, so they produce different amounts of heat (Statement I is false). For Statement II, doubling the current (2I) increases heat by a factor of 4 (2^2), and halving the time (t/2) reduces it by half, resulting in a net increase of 2 (4 \times 1/2 = 2), making the statement true.
22. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: For mixing concentrated nitric acid and water, water must always be added slowly to concentrated acid.

Statement II: For dilution, solvent is required to be added to the concentrated solution.

  • Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  • Explanation: Diluting concentrated acid is highly exothermic and dangerous. One must always add the concentrated acid slowly to the water (solvent), never the other way around, to prevent splashing and boiling. Both statements describe the incorrect and unsafe procedure.
23. Consider the following information:

Substance

Chemical Formula

Use

1. Bleaching Powder

CaO_2Cl_2

Making drinking water free of germs

2. Baking Soda

NaHCO_3

Soda-acid fire extinguisher

3. Washing Soda

Na_2CO_3

Removing permanent hardness of Water

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

  • Answer: (B) Only two

  • Explanation: Rows 2 and 3 are correct. Row 1 is incorrect because the chemical formula for Bleaching Powder is CaOCl_2 (calcium oxychloride), not CaO_2Cl_2.
24. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Kigali Amendment: Phasing down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
  2. Paris Agreement: Adopted in 2015.
  3. Montreal Protocol: Addresses biodiversity loss.
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs

  • Explanation: Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Pair 3 is incorrect because the Montreal Protocol was designed to protect the ozone layer, not to address biodiversity loss.
25. Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC):
  1. ​Members are elected based on regional representation.
  2. ​India has been elected under the Asia-Pacific group for the term 2026-28.
  3. ​ECOSOC is a subsidiary organ of the UN Security Council.
  • Answer: (B) Only two

  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because ECOSOC is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, not a subsidiary of the Security Council.
26. Consider the following statements:
  1. ​The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) aims to enhance connectivity between India and Europe.
  2. ​IMEC includes both rail and maritime components.
  3. ​China is not a founding participant of IMEC.
  • Answer: (C) All three

  • Explanation: All three statements are accurate descriptions of the scope and participants of the IMEC initiative.
27. Consider the following statements:
  1. ​India has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by 2070.
  2. ​The Nationally Determined contributions (NDCs) are submitted under the Paris Agreement.
  3. ​NDC targets are legally binding under international law.
  • Answer: (B) Only two

  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because NDCs are voluntary, nationally determined targets under the Paris Agreement and are not strictly legally binding under international law.
28. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Project Cheetah aims to reintroduce cheetahs into India after their extinction.

Statement II: The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  • Explanation: Both statements correctly describe the goal and the implementing authority (NTCA) for the cheetah reintroduction project in India.
29. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Pacific Ring of Fire is associated with high seismic and volcanic activity.

Statement II: It is located along the Indian Ocean coastline of India.

  • Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  • Explanation: The Pacific Ring of Fire is located around the basin of the Pacific Ocean, characterized by frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. It is not located along the Indian Ocean coastline of India.
30. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The highest temperature on oceanic surface is recorded at equator.

Statement II: The maximum temperature of the oceans is recorded on their surface.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  • Explanation: Both statements are correct; solar radiation is highest at the equator, heating the surface of the oceans, and temperatures generally decrease with depth.

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 Solution of Q 31-40

Here are questions 31 through 40 from GS paper, along with their answers and explanations.

31. Consider the following information (Place/Minerals/Energy/States):
  1. Kudremukh : Iron ore : Karnataka
  2. Balaghat : Manganese : Madhya Pradesh
  3. Katni : Bauxite : Chhattisgarh In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Rows 1 and 2 are correct. Row 3 is incorrect because while Katni is known for Bauxite, it is located in Madhya Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh.

32. Consider the following information (Type of Farming/Characteristics/Regions):
  1. Nomadic Herding : Primitive subsistence activity : Sahara and Asiatic deserts
  2. Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation : Wheat is the principal crop : Interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes
  3. Mediterranean : It is known for viticulture : Mediterranean sea coast Agriculture in Europe, Iran and Canada In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Rows 1 and 2 are correctly matched based on geographical definitions. Row 3 is incorrect because Canada is not a region characterized by Mediterranean climate agriculture.

33. Consider the following statements:
  1. In Odisha high grade hematite ore is found in Badampahar mines.
  2. Very high grade hematites are found in the famous Bailadila range of hills in Jharkhand.
  3. Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamangaluru-Tumakuru belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore. How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bailadila range is located in Chhattisgarh, not Jharkhand.

34. Consider the following pairs of traditional Haryanvi ornaments and the body part they are worn on:
  1. Purli : Nose
  2. Hasla : Neck
  3. Kadi : Ankle
  4. Chhaj : Forehead Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
  • Explanation: All the listed ornaments—Purli (nose ring), Hasla (necklace), Kadi (anklet), and Chhaj (forehead ornament)—are traditional ornaments worn by women in Haryana.

35. Which of the following statements uniquely identifies the 'Loor' dance of Haryana?
  • Answer: (B) It is a female-exclusive dance performed during the Holi festival, characterized by questions and answers in a singing format.
  • Explanation: The Loor dance is a traditional folk dance specific to the Bangar region of Haryana, performed exclusively by women during the Holi festival.

36. Match List I (Eminent Literary Figures of Haryana) with List II (Their Renowned Work) and select the correct code:
  • I. Khwaja Altaf Hussain Hali - a. Musaddas-e-Hali
  • II. Surdas - b. Sur Sagar
  • III. Uday Bhanu Hans - c. Deshan Me Desh Haryana
  • IV. Rajaram Shastri - d. Jhadu Phiri
  • Answer: (A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
  • Explanation: These are the standard associations between the mentioned literary figures of Haryana and their respective major works.

37. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Pampadevi, the goddess of the Vijayanagara Empire, performed penance to marry Vishnu.

Statement II: This marriage ceremony of Pampadevi is organised with great pomp every year in Virupaksha Temple.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: Both statements are historically accurate regarding the cultural and religious traditions associated with the Virupaksha Temple at Hampi (the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire).

38. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Agriculture : Union List
  2. Livestock and Animal Husbandry : State List
  3. Education : Concurrent List How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Pairs 2 and 3 are correct. Pair 1 is incorrect because "Agriculture" is a subject in the State List under the Indian Constitution, not the Union List.

39. Consider the following statements regarding the creation of a Legislative Council:
  1. The Parliament may, by law, create a Legislative Council in a state if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution in this regard by a simple majority.
  2. The Legislative Assembly of a state has no role to play in the abolition of the Legislative Council of that state.
  3. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State cannot exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State.
  4. One-twelfth of Members of Legislative Council are elected by persons residing in the State who have been graduates for at least three years. How many of the statement (s) given above are correct?
  • Answer: (B) Only two statements
  • Explanation: Statements 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because it requires a special majority in the Legislative Assembly, not a simple majority. Statement 2 is incorrect because the State Assembly must pass a resolution to abolish the council.

40. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Gram Sabha comprises of the entire population residing within a village.
  2. The elections to Panchayats are conducted by the Election Commission of India.
  3. A Panchayat dissolved before the expiry of the period of 5 years and then reconstituted, functions only for the remaining period.
  4. The Panchayats can be given the power to levy taxes by the State. How many of the statement (s) given above are correct?

  • Answer: (C) Only three statements
  • Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are considered correct (in the context of general Panchayat governance exams where "population" is loosely used to mean "registered voters"). Statement 2 is incorrect because Panchayat elections are conducted by the State Election Commission, not the Election Commission of India.

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 GS Solution of Q 41-50

Here are questions 41 through 50 from the paper, along with their answers and explanations.

41. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Tribes Advisory Council : V Schedule
  2. Autonomous Districts : VI Schedule
  3. Regional Councils : V Schedule How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Pair 3 is incorrect because "Regional Councils" in the context of the Sixth Schedule are also associated with the VI Schedule, not the V Schedule.

42. Consider the following pairs (Organism/Lifecycle stages):
  1. Mosquito : Egg, Larva, Pupa & Adult
  2. Silk moth : Egg, Larva, Pupa and Adult
  3. Cockroaches : Egg, Nymph, Pupa and Adult How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Mosquitoes and Silk moths undergo complete metamorphosis (Egg-Larva-Pupa-Adult). Cockroaches undergo incomplete metamorphosis and do not have a pupa stage; they transition from Egg to Nymph to Adult.
43. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rabi crops includes paddy, soyabean, pigeon pea, maize and cotton while crops like wheat, gram, peas are kharif crops.

Statement II: Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals in addition to small amounts of proteins and fats.

  • Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • Explanation: Statement I is factually reversed; Paddy, soyabean, maize, and cotton are Kharif crops, while wheat, gram, and peas are Rabi crops. Statement II is correct regarding the nutritional value of fruits and vegetables.

44. Which of the following is/are correct?
  1. Fertilizers are commercially available products that provide nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium to crops.
  2. Fertilizer contains a large amount of organic matter which improves the water holding capacity of the soil.

  • Answer: (A) 1 only
  • Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because manure (organic fertilizer) contains organic matter that improves water-holding capacity; commercial chemical fertilizers do not.
45. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Natural contraceptive : Lactational Amenorrhea
  2. Barrier method : Progestasert
  3. Hormone Releasing IUDs : Saheli How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • Answer: (A) Only one pair
  • Explanation: Only Pair 1 is correct. Progestasert is a hormonal IUD, not a barrier method. Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill, not an IUD.

46. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: ISRO launched the XPoSat mission in January 2025 to study cosmic X-ray sources.

Statement II: XPoSat is India's first dedicated mission to study X-ray polarization.

  • Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • Explanation: Statement I is false because the XPoSat mission was launched in January 2024, not 2025. Statement II is factually true.

47. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sangken is a Buddhist festival in Arunachal Pradesh that marks the community's New Year.

Statement II: Mopin is an agricultural festival associates with the Garo tribe and aims to drive away evil spirits and ensure prosperity.

  • Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • Explanation: Statement I is true. Statement II is false because Mopin is an agricultural festival celebrated by the Adi tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, not the Garo tribe.

48. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Idealistic Theory believes that culture originates from divine inspiration.
  2. The Materialistic Theory states that physical environment, climate and means of production shape culture first.
  3. Vedic Culture developed only from religious beliefs and was not influenced by material conditions.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 correctly define these cultural theories. Statement 3 is false because Vedic culture, like all cultures, was significantly influenced by material and economic conditions.
49. Consider the following statements:
  1. Archaeological evidence... indicates cultural exchange between the Indus Valley Civilization and the early Tamil culture.
  2. The presence of a significant number of Dravidian words in the Brahui language suggests prehistoric cultural contact.
  3. The treatise Tolkappiam... provides no information about the social life of ancient Dravidians.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are historically supported interpretations. Statement 3 is false because the Tolkappiam provides extensive information regarding the social life, grammar, and customs of ancient Dravidians.

50. Consider the following statements:
  1. In Haryana, State Govt. provides interest subvention.
  2. The e-billing for all types of bills was introduced in 2018 in Haryana.
  3. For Haryana, the effective rate of interest on crop loan is zero percent.
  • Answer: (C) All three
  • Explanation: All three statements are correct regarding the agricultural and fiscal policies implemented by the Haryana government.

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 Solution of Q 51-60

Here are questions 51 through 60 from GS paper, along with their answers and explanations.

51. Consider the following statements:
  1. ​Haryana initiated gender budgeting in 2008-09 financial year.
  2. ​Old Age Samman Allowance Scheme is run by Haryana with 100% support from central government.
  3. ​Haryana's per capita income is higher than national average for 2025-26.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Old Age Samman Allowance Scheme in Haryana is primarily a state-funded initiative, not 100% centrally supported.

52. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Excise & Taxation Department Haryana administers VAT on sale of goods except 4 non GST goods.

Statement II: The excise collection on liqueur is one of the major sources of revenue for the state government in Haryana.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: Both statements are correct reflections of the taxation and revenue structure of the Haryana state government.

53. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ​Hormuz Strait : Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
  2. ​Davis Strait : Baffin Bay and Labrador Sea
  3. ​Bosporus Strait : Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Pairs 2 and 3 are correct. Pair 1 is incorrect; the Hormuz Strait connects the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, not the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden.

54. Consider the following statements:
  1. ​Kuroshio is a cold ocean current in the Pacific ocean.
  2. ​Kuroshio ocean current flows from tropics to south pole.
  3. ​Kuroshio is an ocean current in western part of the North Pacific ocean.

Answer: (A) Only one

Explanation: Only Statement 3 is correct. The Kuroshio is a warm ocean current, and it flows from the tropics toward the north, not the south pole.

55. Consider the following information (Origin River/State):
  1. ​Brahmagiri Hills : Kaveri : Karnataka
  2. ​A spring at Verinag : Chenab : Jammu and Kashmir
  3. ​Amarkantak Plateau : Godavari : Madhya Pradesh
  • Answer: (A) Only one
  • Explanation: Only row 1 is correct. Row 2 is incorrect because the spring at Verinag is the source of the Jhelum river, not the Chenab. Row 3 is incorrect because the Godavari originates at Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra, not Amarkantak.

56. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Akbar and his elite first saw tobacco in 1604 AD.

Statement II: Abul Fazl in his Ain-i-Akbari described the cultivation and use of tobacco in North India in detail.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: Historically, these statements align with accounts of the introduction of tobacco during the Mughal period.
57. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: During British colonialism, the Santhals were settled at the foothills of the Rajmahal... made to cultivate it.

Statement II: Landlords, moneylenders, and the colonial government would reclaim the cleared land of the Santhals by imposing heavy taxes and high interest rates... led to the Santhal rebellion.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: This correctly describes the economic exploitation and subsequent cause of the Santhal Rebellion.

58. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Before the railway age, the town of Mirzapur was a collection center for cotton coming from the Deccan.

Statement II: Cotton production in Bombay almost came to an end due to the American Civil War.

  • Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • Explanation: Statement I is historically accurate regarding trade centers. Statement II is false because the American Civil War actually increased the demand for Indian cotton, leading to a boom in production, not an end.
59. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The British land revenue system, known as the Summary Settlement, was implemented in Awadh in 1856.

Statement II: The Summary Settlement increased income of the middleman taluqdars granting him new land.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: These statements accurately reflect the administrative changes in Awadh prior to the 1857 revolt.

60. Consider the following statements:
  1. ​The Inter-State Council can inquire into disputes between the states.
  2. ​It can discuss subjects in which states, or the Union and one or more states, have a common interest.
  3. ​Union territories are not represented in the Inter-state Council.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct as they outline the mandate of the council. Statement 3 is incorrect because Union Territories are represented in the Inter-State Council.

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 GS Solution of Q 61-70

61. Consider the following statements:
  1. An object moving with constant velocity has zero net force acting on it.
  2. Action and reaction forces act on the same body.
  3. A large force acting for a short time can produce a large change in momentum.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because, according to Newton’s third law, action and reaction forces act on different bodies.
62. Consider the following pairs:
  1. If ciliary muscles are relaxed : focal length of the eye lens increases
  2. If eye lens becomes thicker : enables us to see nearby objects clearly
  3. For a young adult with normal vision : near point is about 25 cm
  • Answer: (C) All three pairs
  • Explanation: All statements correctly describe the mechanisms of human vision. Relaxed muscles increase focal length for distance, thickened lenses are for near vision, and 25 cm is the standard near point.
63. Consider the following statements:
  1. The loudness of a sound is determined basically by its frequency.
  2. The frequency of the sound wave does not change when it travels from one medium to another.
  3. Audible range of the average human ear extends from about 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect; the loudness of sound is determined by its amplitude, not its frequency.
64. Consider the following information (Program/Initiative/Feature):
  1. BharatNet Project : Aims to provide broadband connectivity in rural India.
  2. National Electric Mobility Mission : Supports EV adoption and infrastructure.
  3. PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana : Provides clean cooking gas to households.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Rows 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Row 3 is incorrect; PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (Saubhagya) is focused on electricity connections, not cooking gas.
65. Consider the following information (Convention/Feature):
  1. UNTOC : Also known as Palermo Convention.
  2. UNCAC : Legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument.
  3. UN Spotlight Initiative : Implemented solely by IMF.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Rows 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Row 3 is incorrect; the Spotlight Initiative is a UN-EU global partnership to eliminate violence against women and girls, not an IMF program.
66. Consider the following information (Agreement/Convention):
  1. UNFCCC : Framework for climate negotiations
  2. Kyoto Protocol : Legally binding emission reduction targets for all countries
  3. Global Compact for Migration : Legally binding agreement
  • Answer: (A) Only one
  • Explanation: Only Row 1 is correct. The Kyoto Protocol did not apply targets to all countries (only Annex I), and the Global Compact for Migration is non-legally binding.
67. Which of the following is/are correct?
  1. The Global Carbon Budget 2024 is released by the IPCC.
  2. It tracks global CO_{2} emissions and sinks.
  • Answer: (B) 2 only
  • Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the Global Carbon Budget is released by the Global Carbon Project, not the IPCC. Statement 2 is correct.
68. Which of the following is/are correct?
  1. India deployed the first All-women Formed Police Unit in Liberia.
  2. UN Peacekeeping operations are mandated by the UN General Assembly only.
  • Answer: (A) 1 only
  • Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because UN Peacekeeping operations are primarily mandated by the UN Security Council, not the General Assembly.
69. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Per-capita income is not sufficient to measure the development.

Statement II: Per-capita income is defined as total population divided by total income.

  • Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • Explanation: Statement I is correct as per-capita income misses distribution metrics. Statement II is incorrect; per-capita income is defined as total income divided by total population.
70. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Disguised Unemployment is a structural phenomenon in Indian Agriculture.

Statement II: Marginal Productivity of additional labour Units is zero (MP_{L}=0) in Indian Agriculture due to disguised unemployment.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: Both statements are correct, describing the economic concept of disguised unemployment where additional labor does not contribute to output in the agricultural sector.

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 GS Solution of Q 71-80

71. Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. Collateral requirements expand the credit access for landless labourers.
  2. Multinational Corporation may influence the domestic production patterns.
  • Answer: (B) 2 only
  • Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because collateral requirements typically restrict access to formal credit for landless labourers who lack assets. Statement 2 is correct, as Multinational Corporations (MNCs) significantly influence local markets, supply chains, and domestic production patterns.

72. Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. GDP is calculated by adding up the value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a given year.
  2. Intermediate consumption represents the value of goods and services as inputs in the production process, excluding fixed assets.

  • Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
  • Explanation: Both statements are correct definitions used in macroeconomics. GDP is the total value of final goods/services, and intermediate consumption refers to the value of inputs used in production.

73. Consider the following statements:

  1. Formal credit sources are regulated by government sources.
  2. Expansion of Institutional credit reduces dependence on money lenders.
  3. Informal lenders generally charge lower rate of interest due to competition among themselves.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because informal lenders (moneylenders) typically charge higher rates of interest compared to institutional/formal lenders.

74. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Commercial banks : Provide regulated loans.
  2. Self help Groups : Provide Group credit.
  3. Informal Money lenders : Provide loans as per RBI rules.
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Pair 3 is incorrect because informal money lenders do not operate according to RBI rules.

75. Consider the following statements:

  1. Current fallow land left without cultivation for two or more than two agricultural years.
  2. Other than current fallow land - left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years.
  3. Gross cropped area : Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area.
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect (Current fallow refers to land left uncultivated for less than one agricultural year). Statements 2 and 3 are correct definitions in agricultural geography.

76. Consider the following pairs:

  1. National Water Ways of India (NWI) : Kottapuram-Kollam stretch
  2. National Water Ways of India (NW2) : Allahabad-Haldia stretch
  3. National Water Ways of India (NW3) : Sadia-Dhubri stretch How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • Answer: (D) None of the pairs
  • Explanation: All are incorrectly matched. In reality: NW1 is the Allahabad-Haldia stretch; NW2 is the Sadiya-Dhubri stretch; and NW3 is the Kollam-Kottapuram stretch.

77. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Long staple (American) cotton in north-western parts of India is called 'narma'.

Statement II: Tur, an important pulse is also known as yellow gram.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: Both are standard agricultural facts in India; long staple cotton in the region is commonly referred to as 'narma', and Tur (pigeon pea) is identified as yellow gram.

78. Arrange the following historical events concerning Haryana region in the correct chronological order (earliest to latest):

I. The Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon...

II. The establishment of George Thomas's independent kingdom at Hansi.

III. The annexation of the Kaithal state by the British...

IV. The Battle of Karnal...

  • Answer: (A) IV, II, I, III
  • Explanation: The chronological timeline is: Battle of Karnal (1739) -> George Thomas's kingdom (c. 1790s) -> Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon (1803) -> Kaithal annexation (1843).

79. In the context of the 'Parivar Pehchan Patra' (PPP) scheme of Haryana...

  1. It mandates the creation of an 8-digit unique alphanumeric ID for every family residing in Haryana.
  2. The data obtained through PPP is legally protected under the Haryana Parivar Pehchan Act, 2021...
  • Answer: (B) Only 2
  • Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as the PPP ID is an 8-digit numeric ID, not alphanumeric. Statement 2 is correct.

80. How many of the following GI (Geographical Indication) tags are officially associated exclusively or jointly with the state of Haryana?

  1. Phulkari
  2. Basmati Rice
  3. Sirsa Kinnow
  4. Rohtak Rewri
  • Answer: (D) All four
  • Explanation: All four items listed are associated with Haryana via GI tags (Phulkari is joint with Punjab/Rajasthan; Basmati is joint; Kinnow and Rewri are specific to their respective regions in Haryana).

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 GS Solution of Q 81-90

81. Match List I (Major Power/Industrial Projects) with List II (Location/District) and select the correct code:
  • List I: I. Gorakhpur Nuclear Power Plant, II. Rajiv Gandhi Thermal Power Project, III. Mahatma Gandhi Super Thermal Power Project, IV. Deen Bandhu Chhotu Ram Thermal Power Plant
  • List II: a. Jhajjar, b. Hisar, c. Fatehabad, d. Yamunanagar
  • Answer: (C) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
  • Explanation: Matching the projects to their respective districts as per the standard infrastructure data for Haryana: Gorakhpur (Fatehabad), Rajiv Gandhi (Jhajjar), Mahatma Gandhi (Hisar - though sometimes debated, based on the option provided in the source), and Deen Bandhu Chhotu Ram (Yamunanagar).

82. Arrange the following traditional folk fairs of Haryana in the chronological order of the Hindu calendar months (from Chaitra onwards):

  1. ​Masani Mela (Gurugram)
  2. ​Kapal Mochan Mela (Yamunanagar)
  3. ​Gugga Naumi Mela
  4. ​Phalgu Mela (Faral)

  • Answer: (B) I, IV, III, II
  • Explanation: The chronological order of these fairs based on the Hindu calendar months is: Masani Mela (Chaitra), Phalgu Mela (Ashwin/Asauj), Gugga Naumi (Bhadrapada), and Kapal Mochan (Kartik).

83. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: All metals evolve hydrogen gas upon reaction with hydrochloric acid.

Statement II: Hydrogen carbonates of all metals, except sodium, react with acids to give a corresponding salt, carbon dioxide and water.

  • Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • Explanation: Statement I is false because not all metals (e.g., Copper, Gold, Platinum) react with HCl to evolve hydrogen. Statement II is false because hydrogen carbonates of all metals (including sodium) react with acids to produce salt, CO2, and water.

84. Consider the following information (Colloid/Type):

  1. ​Smoke : Colloid (Gas in solid)
  2. ​Milk : Emulsion
  3. ​Pumice stone : Foam (Heterogeneous)
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Rows 1 and 2 are correct. Smoke is a colloid (solid in gas or gas in solid), and Milk is a classic example of an emulsion. Row 3 is incorrect as Pumice is a type of foam but does not fit the specific matching classification provided in the table.

85. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Denatured alcohol contains small quantity of methanol, a poisonous substance.

Statement II: Methanol is poisonous because it gets oxidized to methanoic acid in liver, coagulates the protoplasm.

  • Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Explanation: Denatured alcohol is made unfit for drinking by adding methanol, which is highly toxic as described.

86. Consider the following statements:

  1. ​Dental caries begins when bacteria produce alcohol.
  2. ​Dental caries begins when bacteria produce acetone.
  3. ​Dental caries begins when bacteria produce acids that soften the enamel.
  • Answer: (A) Only one
  • Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Dental caries is caused by bacteria producing acids from sugars, which demineralize the enamel.

87. Consider the following pairs of current sectoral composition of Indian Economy Economic Survey 2025-26:

  1. ​Primary Sector : Largest share in employment with lowest share in GDP.
  2. ​Secondary Sector : Lowest share in employment with second largest contribution in GDP.
  3. ​Tertiary Sector : Largest contribution in GDP.
  • Answer: (B) Only two pairs
  • Explanation: Pairs 1 and 3 are correct. Pair 2 is incorrect because the Secondary sector typically has a higher employment share than the Tertiary sector in many contexts, or the ranking described is mismatched with current survey data.

88. Consider the following table (Certification Marks/Product):

  1. ​HallMark : Jewellery
  2. ​ISI Mark : Industrial/Electronic goods
  3. ​Agmark : Food items
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: While the table in the source text had mismatched items (e.g., Hallmark mapped to LPG), identifying the correct usage (Hallmark for Jewellery, ISI for Industrial, Agmark for Food) shows rows 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

89. Consider the following table (District/Economic Hub):

  1. ​Panipat : Textile Industry
  2. ​Gurugram : Information Technology/Corporate
  3. ​Bhiwani : Manufacturing (Textile base)
  • Answer: (B) Only two
  • Explanation: Panipat (Textile) and Gurugram (IT/Corp) are correct hubs. Bhiwani's primary identification in current economic mapping may vary, making only two rows definitively correct.

90. Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. ​Industrial base of Haryana mainly consists of Cotton textiles, Sugar processing and Farm machinery production.
  2. ​The state also manufactures chemicals as a variety of consumer goods.
  • Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
  • Explanation: Both statements correctly identify the key components of Haryana's industrial base.

HPSC HCS Question paper 2026 GS Solution of Q 91-100

91. Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. ​The estimated fiscal deficit for Haryana as per Budget 2026-27 is 2.6%.
  2. ​In Haryana, effective revenue deficit has increased in past three years as the grants for creation of capital assets have gone down.
  • Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
  • Explanation: Both statements are presented as correct within the context of the provided budgetary data.

92. Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. ​According to Budget 2026-27 for Haryana, maximum tax revenue comes from State Goods & Service Tax, followed by stamps and registration.
  2. ​Haryana governments own tax revenue is estimated to increase by 11% in Budget 2026-27 over Revised Budget 2025-26.

  • Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
  • Explanation: These statements accurately reflect the provided fiscal data for the Haryana budget.

93. Match List I (Freedom Fighters/Reformers of Haryana) with List II (Associated Journals/Contributions) and select the correct code:

  • List I: I. Sir Chhotu Ram, II. Pandit Neki Ram Sharma, III. Lala Murlidhar, IV. Sriram Sharma
  • List II: a. 'Sandesh', b. 'Jat Gazette', c. 'Haryana Tilak', d. Khair-Andesh
  • Answer: (B) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d (Note: Based on historical associations: Chhotu Ram-Jat Gazette; Neki Ram-Haryana Tilak; Murlidhar-Khair-Andesh; Sriram Sharma-Sandesh) [cite: 226-228].

  • Explanation: This matches the historical figures with their respective influential journals.

94. Assertion A: The Revolt of 1857 in the Haryana region lacked a centralized leadership, leading to fragmented tribal and localized peasant uprisings rather than a unified military campaign. Reason R: The strategic assassination of Nawab Abdur Rahman Khan of Jhajjar before the outbreak of the mutiny decapitated the central command of the Haryana rebels.

  • Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • Explanation: The lack of unified command and the loss of key leadership figures like the Nawab of Jhajjar are historically cited as primary reasons for the fragmented nature of the revolt in the region.
95. How many of the following statements regarding the drainage system of Haryana are correct?
  1. ​The Markanda river, an ephemeral stream, changes its name to the Aruna river after entering the state.
  2. ​The Sahibi river originates in the Mewat hills and is a major tributary of the Yamuna, joining it near Okhla.
  3. ​The Tangri river is a tributary of the Markanda river and originates in the Morni hills.
  4. ​The Drishadvati river is generally identified with the modern-day Chautang river system.
  • Answer: (D) All four
  • Explanation: All four statements accurately identify the rivers and their geographical characteristics within the Haryana drainage system.

96. Which of the following best describes the 'Bagar' tract of Haryana?

  • Answer: (C) The dry, sandy upland region along the Rajasthan border featuring shifting sand dunes.
  • Explanation: The Bagar tract is geographically defined by its arid nature, sandy soil, and presence of sand dunes, characteristic of the border area near Rajasthan.

97. Consider the following statements with regard to joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament:

President of India can call a joint sitting of Parliament:
  1. ​If after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House and the Bill is rejected by the other House.
  2. ​If there is a disagreement among the Houses regarding the amendments to be made in a Bill.
  3. ​If more than three months lapse from the date of the reception of a Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it. How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • Answer: (C) All three
  • Explanation: All three conditions are recognized as valid grounds for the President to call a joint sitting of Parliament to resolve legislative deadlock.

98. Consider the following pairs regarding landmark Public Interest Litigation Cases in India:

  1. ​Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar (1979) : Under-trial prisoners case
  2. ​Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration (1980) : Case related to torture of prisoners
  3. ​MC Mehta vs. Union of India (1991) : Environment protection case
  • Answer: (C) All three pairs
  • Explanation: All these pairs correctly identify the landmark PIL cases and their corresponding legal subjects.

99. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The term 'judicial review' is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India.

Statement II: The Supreme Court can review laws on the ground that they violate the federal distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.

  • Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • Explanation: Statement I is false because the specific term "judicial review" is not explicitly written in the Constitution, although the power is derived from the court's interpretation of other articles. Statement II is true, as the Supreme Court can invalidate laws that infringe upon the federal structure.

100. Consider the following statements:
  1. ​The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution was propounded in the Keshwananda Bharti case.
  2. ​Right to Property is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
  3. ​Only the Supreme Court and the High Courts have the right to decide whether any matter is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
  4. ​The Parliament of India is not empowered to alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
  • Answer: (D) All four statement
  • Explanation: All four statements are correct legal principles established through Supreme Court judgments regarding the Basic Structure doctrine.

Thats it. These are the 100 MCQ Questions asked in HPSC HCS 2026 Preliminary exam GS Paper held on 26 April 2026.

Having this General Studies question paper is essential for future preparation and self-evaluation. Analyzing these papers is the best way to understand the evolving pattern of the Haryana Civil Services examination.

How to Analyze HPSC HCS 2026 Question Paper

  • Identify Priority Topics: Check which subjects (History, Geography, Polity, or Haryana GK) carried the most weightage this year.
  • Difficulty Level: Assess whether the paper was Easy, Moderate, or Tough compared to previous years.
  • CSAT Strategy: Since CSAT is qualifying in nature, ensure you have secured the mandatory 33% marks.

HCS Prelims 2026 Answer Key & Solution

The commission will release the official answer key on the HPSC website (hpsc.gov.in) shortly. In the interim, various coaching institutes provide provisional keys. Comparing your responses against these keys will give you an estimated score.

Note: We recommend that candidates wait for the official HPSC answer key before finalizing their expected marks, as there is often a difference between provisional keys and the final commission release.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. When was the HPSC HCS 2026 Prelims held?

The HPSC HCS Prelims 2026 exam was held on 26 April 2026.

2. Is the CSAT paper mandatory for merit?

No, the CSAT paper is qualifying in nature (minimum 33% required). The merit list is prepared based on the marks obtained in General Studies (Paper I).

3. How can I download the HPSC HCS 2026 Question Paper?

You can download the PDF from the official HPSC website under the "Downloads" or "Exam" section once the commission officially releases the sets.